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352-001 Exam Dumps

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NEW QUESTION 793
What is the main reason to recommend NetFLow?

A. When the network consists of multivendor devices.
B. When granular reporting capabilities are needed.
C. When information about network device utilization is needed.
D. When statistics for capacity planning is needed.

(more…)

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NEW QUESTION 706
What are two base components of both a source-based remotely triggered black hole and a destination-based remotely triggered black hole filtering solution? (Choose two.)

A.    NetFlow
B.    static route withthe next hop pointing to the Null0 interface
C.    infrastructure access list
D.    triggered IBGP update setting next hop to a predetermined, unused IP address
E.    uRPF

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NEW QUESTION 560
Which two options describe the advantages of using DWDM over traditional optical networks? (Choose two.)

A.    Inherent topology flexibility with intelligent chromatic dispersion.
B.    Inherent topology flexibility and service protection provided without penalty through intelligent oversubscription of bandwidth reservation.
C.    Inherent topology flexibility with built-in service protection.
D.    Inherent topology flexibility with a service protection provided through a direct integration with an upper layer protocol.
E.    Ability to expand bandwidth over existing optical infrastructure.

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NEW QUESTION 412
A company will integrate an IPv6 application into their network and wants to develop a test environment to evaluate application performance across the network. This application consists of both unicast and multicast traffic. The company wants to do this testing only in certain locations of its existing IPv4-only network, and all chosen locations should communicate with each other. Which tunneling technology works in this scenario?

A.    ISATAP
B.    6PE
C.    DMVPN
D.    6to4

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QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in this network are configured to run OSPF on all interfaces. If you examine the OSPF database on R4, in which LSA will you find 10.1.5.0/24?
passleader-352-001-dumps-1811

A.    10.1.5.0/24 is in a network (type 2) LSA originated by R3.
B.    10.1.5.0/24 is in a summary (type 3) LSA originated by R3.
C.    10.1.5.0/24 is not in any LSA in the OSPF database at R4, because R4 and R3 are in different areas.
D.    10.1.5.0/24 is in a router (type 1) LSA generated by R3.

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QUESTION 161
For a storage area network design, which technology allows a switch to support multiple Fibre Channel IDs per fabric port?

A.    N-Port Identifier Virtualization
B.    Inter-Virtual Storage Area Network Routing
C.    Zoning
D.    Fabric Port Trunking
E.    Node Port Virtualization
F.    Expansion Port Trunking

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QUESTION 141
You are designing a solution to eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization on a core network composed of CRS-1 devices. Which option would eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization across the network?

A.    Use Local Packet Transport Services (LPTS) to manage hardware SNMP flow rate.
B.    Use the in-band control plane policy feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
C.    Use the control plane policy feature and reduce SNMP flow rate.
D.    Use control-plane management-plane in-band and reduce the SNMP flow rate.
E.    Use the control-plane management-plane out-of-band feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.

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QUESTION 121
Among the design criteria for a network is the requirement that bandwidth capacity be managed proactively. Which two techniques would most effectively support the proactive management of network bandwidth capacity? (Choose two.)

A.    analyze network bandwidth utilization to establish a baseline
B.    implement QoS to increase available bandwidth and overall throughput
C.    implement utilization measurement and tracking measures in the network
D.    configure SNMP MIB collectors to trigger at utilization thresholds

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