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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output. Which information is provided by the Load value?
A. the percentage of use of the link
B. the preference of the link
C. the session count of the link
D. the number source-destination pairs on the link
Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding stated?
A. BPDU guard
B. PortFast
C. loop guard
D. UDLD
E. Uplink Fast
Answer: B
Explanation:
PortFast causes a switch or trunk port to enter the spanning tree forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening and learning states. You can use PortFast on switch or trunk ports that are connected to a single workstation, switch, or server to allow those devices to connect to the network immediately, instead of waiting for the port to transition from the listening and learning states to the forwarding state.
QUESTION 33
Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
A. 802.1d
B. 802.11
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1x
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN. The term ‘supplicant’ is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols.
The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicant’s identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport’s arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.
QUESTION 34
Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?
A. 1
B. 64
C. 99
D. 100
E. 299
F. 1099
Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which two pieces of information are provided by the show controllers serial 0 command? (Choose two.)
A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface
B. The uptime of the interface
C. the status of the physical layer of the interface
D. the full configuration of the interface
E. the interface’s duplex settings
Answer: AC
Explanation:
The show controller command provides hardware-related information useful to troubleshoot and diagnose issues with Cisco router interfaces. The Cisco 12000 Series uses a distributed architecture with a central command-line interface (CLI) at the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) and a local CLI at each line card.
QUESTION 36
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Answer: C
QUESTION 37
Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on a subinterface?
A. interface FastEthernet 0/0
encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
B. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
C. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
description subinterface vlan 30
D. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Answer: E
QUESTION 39
Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
A. The frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.
B. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
C. It is configured in enable mode.
D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?
A. It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
B. It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.
C. It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rapid PVST+This spanning-tree mode is the same as PVST+ except that is uses a rapid convergence based on the IEEE 802.1w standard. To provide rapid convergence, the rapid PVST+ immediately deletes dynamically learned MAC address entries on a per-port basis upon receiving a topology change. By contrast, PVST+ uses a short aging time for dynamically learned MAC address entries.
The rapid PVST+ uses the same configuration as PVST+ (except where noted), and the switch needs only minimal extra configuration. The benefit of rapid PVST+ is that you can migrate a large PVST+ install base to rapid PVST+ without having to learn the complexities of the MSTP configuration and without having to reprovision your network. In rapid-PVST+ mode, each VLAN runs its own spanning-tree instance up to the maximum supported.
QUESTION 41
Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?
A. ring
B. full mesh
C. hub-and-spoke
D. partial mesh
Answer: C
QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit. Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.
B. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
C. Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
D. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.
E. Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.
Answer: DE
Explanation:
A situation can occur where the interface MTU is at a high value, for example 9000, while the real value of the size of packets that can be forwarded over this interface is 1500. If there is a mismatch on MTU on both sides of the link where OSPF runs, then the OSPF adjacency will not form because the MTU value is carried in the Database Description (DBD) packets and checked on the other side.
QUESTION 43
Which statement about switch access ports is true?
A. They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.
B. A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.
C. They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support.
D. By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.
Answer: A
Explanation:
“If an access port receives a packet with an 802.1Q tag in the header other than the access VLAN value, that port drops the packet without learning its MAC source address.”
QUESTION 44
Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?
A. It provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage.
B. It simplifies adding and removing hosts.
C. It supports better performance of high-needs applications.
D. It provides higher port density with better resource usage.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A stackable switch is a network switch that is fully functional operating standalone but which can also be set up to operate together with one or more other network switches, with this group of switches showing the characteristics of a single switch but having the port capacity of the sum of the combined switches.
QUESTION 45
What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?
A. Configure server traps.
B. Configure the server group.
C. Configure the server host.
D. Configure the remote engine ID.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first task in configuring SNMPv3 is to define a view. To simplify things, we’ll create a view that allows access to the entire internet subtree:
router(config)#snmp-server view readview internet included This command creates a view called readview. If you want to limit the view to the system tree, for example, replace internet with system. The included keyword states that the specified tree should be included in the view; use excluded if you wanted to exclude a certain subtree.
Next, create a group that uses the new view. The following command creates a group called readonly ; v3 means that SNMPv3 should be used. The auth keyword specifies that the entity should authenticate packets without encrypting them; read readview says that the view named readview should be used whenever members of the readonly group access the router.
router(config)#snmp-server group readonly v3 auth read readview
QUESTION 46
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Another benefit of using named access configuration mode is that you can add new statements to the access list, and insert them wherever you like. With the legacy syntax, you must delete the entire access list before reapplying it using the updated rules.
QUESTION 47
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Answer: DE
QUESTION 48
Which statement about MPLS is true?
A. It operates in Layer 1.
B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
C. It operates in Layer 3.
D. it operates in Layer 2.
Answer: B
Explanation:
MPLS belongs to the family of packet-switched networks. MPLS operates at a layer that is generally considered to lie between traditional definitions of OSI Layer 2 (data link layer) and Layer 3 (network layer), and thus is often referred to as a layer 2.5 protocol.
QUESTION 49
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which three options are the HSRP states for a router? (Choose three.)
A. initialize
B. learn
C. secondary
D. listen
E. speak
F. primary
Answer: BDE
New 200-105 exam questions from PassLeader 200-105 dumps! Welcome to download the newest PassLeader 200-105 VCE and PDF dumps: http://www.passleader.com/200-105.html (497 Q&As –> 539 Q&As –> 758 Q&As –> 789 Q&As)
P.S. Free 200-105 dumps are available on Google Drive shared by PassLeader: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpUTVNc3otMV8xMkU
